1. What is the primary purpose of neonatal resuscitation?
a) To initiate breastfeeding
b) To establish effective breathing and circulation
c) To administer immunizations
d) To perform a physical examination
Answer: b) To establish effective breathing and circulation
2. What is the normal range for a newborn’s heart rate?
a) 80-100 beats per minute
b) 100-140 beats per minute
c) 120-160 beats per minute
d) 160-200 beats per minute
Answer: c) 120-160 beats per minute
3. Which of the following is a common sign of neonatal hypoglycemia?
a) Hyperactivity
b) Jaundice
c) Lethargy
d) Cyanosis
Answer: c) Lethargy
4. What is the recommended method for thermoregulation in the newborn immediately after birth?
a) Warm blankets
b) Warm room temperature
c) Skin-to-skin contact with the mother
d) Heating lamp
Answer: c) Skin-to-skin contact with the mother
5. What is the first vaccination typically administered to newborns?
a) Hepatitis B
b) MMR
c) Varicella
d) Hib
Answer: a) Hepatitis B
6. At what gestational age is a newborn considered “preterm”?
a) Less than 32 weeks
b) Less than 34 weeks
c) Less than 37 weeks
d) Less than 40 weeks
Answer: c) Less than 37 weeks
7. What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in a preterm infant?
a) Congenital heart defects
b) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
c) Pneumonia
d) Meconium aspiration syndrome
Answer: b) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
8. Which of the following is a key component of the APGAR score?
a) Reflex response
b) Feeding ability
c) Weight
d) Urine output
Answer: a) Reflex response
9. What is the typical range for a newborn’s temperature?
a) 95-97°F (35-36°C)
b) 97-99°F (36-37°C)
c) 98-100°F (37-38°C)
d) 100-102°F (38-39°C)
Answer: b) 97-99°F (36-37°C)
10. What is the primary treatment for jaundice in newborns?
a) Phototherapy
b) Intravenous fluids
c) Exchange transfusion
d) Antibiotics
Answer: a) Phototherapy
11. What is the common term for the condition where the newborn has an inadequate amount of red blood cells?
a) Hyperbilirubinemia
b) Anemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Leukopenia
Answer: b) Anemia
12. What is the recommended position for feeding a newborn with cleft lip?
a) Supine
b) Side-lying
c) Prone
d) Fowlerâs position
Answer: b) Side-lying
13. What is the typical weight range for a full-term newborn?
a) 3-4 pounds
b) 5-7 pounds
c) 8-10 pounds
d) 11-13 pounds
Answer: b) 5-7 pounds
14. What is a common sign of neonatal sepsis?
a) Excessive crying
b) High fever
c) Poor feeding and lethargy
d) Skin rash
Answer: c) Poor feeding and lethargy
15. What is the recommended treatment for neonatal hypothermia?
a) Increasing the room temperature
b) Providing warm intravenous fluids
c) Using a radiant warmer
d) Administering warm blankets
Answer: c) Using a radiant warmer
16. What is the term for a newborn who is born with a weight below the 10th percentile for their gestational age?
a) Small for gestational age (SGA)
b) Large for gestational age (LGA)
c) Average for gestational age (AGA)
d) Preterm
Answer: a) Small for gestational age (SGA)
17. At what age is it recommended to begin routine screening for hearing in newborns?
a) Immediately after birth
b) Within the first 1-3 days
c) At 1 month
d) At 3 months
Answer: b) Within the first 1-3 days
18. What is the most common cause of hypoglycemia in a newborn?
a) Maternal diabetes
b) Prematurity
c) Inadequate feeding
d) Infection
Answer: a) Maternal diabetes
19. Which of the following is a common sign of meconium aspiration syndrome?
a) Rapid breathing
b) Cyanosis
c) Hyperbilirubinemia
d) Dehydration
Answer: a) Rapid breathing
20. What is the typical frequency for assessing vital signs in a newborn during the first 24 hours after birth?
a) Every 30 minutes
b) Every hour
c) Every 2 hours
d) Every 4 hours
Answer: b) Every hour
21. What is the recommended initial feeding method for a preterm newborn?
a) Bottle feeding
b) Breastfeeding
c) Nasogastric tube feeding
d) Intravenous feeding
Answer: c) Nasogastric tube feeding
22. What is the common term for a condition where the newbornâs intestines protrude through the abdominal wall?
a) Gastroschisis
b) Omphalocele
c) Umbilical hernia
d) Inguinal hernia
Answer: b) Omphalocele
23. What is the primary treatment for neonatal hypocalcemia?
a) Oral calcium supplements
b) Intravenous calcium gluconate
c) Phototherapy
d) Vitamin D supplementation
Answer: b) Intravenous calcium gluconate
24. What is a common symptom of neonatal withdrawal syndrome?
a) Excessive sleepiness
b) Hypertonia
c) Decreased feeding
d) Jaundice
Answer: b) Hypertonia
25. What is the primary method for preventing necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in preterm infants?
a) Early initiation of enteral feeding
b) Prophylactic antibiotics
c) Routine blood transfusions
d) Frequent suctioning
Answer: a) Early initiation of enteral feeding
26. What is the recommended method for managing a newborn with a congenital heart defect?
a) Immediate surgery
b) Pharmacological treatment
c) Close monitoring and supportive care
d) Genetic counseling
Answer: c) Close monitoring and supportive care
27. At what age is it typically recommended to perform the first newborn screening test for metabolic disorders?
a) At birth
b) Within 24-48 hours after birth
c) At 1 week
d) At 1 month
Answer: b) Within 24-48 hours after birth
28. What is the most common type of congenital hip dysplasia?
a) Dislocated hip
b) Hip subluxation
c) Hip impingement
d) Hip fracture
Answer: b) Hip subluxation
29. What is the main symptom of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in neonates?
a) Tachypnea
b) Bradycardia
c) Cyanosis
d) Hypotonia
Answer: a) Tachypnea
30. What is the primary purpose of a heel stick test in newborns?
a) To assess blood glucose levels
b) To obtain blood samples for screening tests
c) To check for blood type and Rh factor
d) To monitor hemoglobin levels
Answer: b) To obtain blood samples for screening tests
31. What is the most common type of congenital anomaly detected on prenatal ultrasound?
a) Neural tube defects
b) Congenital heart defects
c) Cleft lip and/or palate
d) Down syndrome
Answer: b) Congenital heart defects
32. What is the recommended method for assessing a newborn’s risk for jaundice?
a) Serum bilirubin levels
b) Physical examination only
c) Umbilical cord blood testing
d) Transcutaneous bilirubinometry
Answer: d) Transcutaneous bilirubinometry
33. What is the main purpose of the newborn screening test for phenylketonuria (PKU)?
a) To detect liver function abnormalities
b) To identify metabolic disorders
c) To evaluate thyroid function
d) To assess hearing loss
Answer: b) To identify metabolic disorders
34. What is a common sign of an infected umbilical stump?
a) Dry and shriveled appearance
b) Redness and discharge
c) Bleeding
d) Normal healing
Answer: b) Redness and discharge
35. What is the most appropriate method for assessing a newborn’s hydration status?
a) Weight measurement
b) Skin turgor
c) Urine output
d) Capillary refill time
Answer: a) Weight measurement
36. What is the common term for a condition where a newborn’s skin appears mottled or discolored?
a) Cyanosis
b) Erythema
c) Acrocyanosis
d) Jaundice
Answer: c) Acrocyanosis
37. Which medication is commonly given to prevent the onset of RDS in preterm infants?
a) Betamethasone
b) Surfactant
c) Antibiotics
d) Oxygen therapy
Answer: a) Betamethasone
38. What is the primary goal of neonatal intensive care units (NICUs)?
a) To provide routine pediatric care
b) To manage high-risk newborns
c) To facilitate early discharge
d) To provide vaccinations
Answer: b) To manage high-risk newborns
39. What is the most common cause of early-onset sepsis in newborns?
a) Group B Streptococcus
b) E. coli
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: a) Group B Streptococcus
40. What is the recommended position for a newborn during sleep to reduce the risk of SIDS?
a) Prone
b) Supine
c) Side-lying
d) Sitting
Answer: b) Supine
41. What is the typical time frame for initiating breastfeeding after birth?
a) Within the first hour
b) Within 3 hours
c) Within 6 hours
d) Within 12 hours
Answer: a) Within the first hour
42. What is a common concern for infants with fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD)?
a) Increased height
b) Behavioral problems
c) Enhanced cognitive abilities
d) Decreased risk of learning disabilities
Answer: b) Behavioral problems
43. Which screening test is performed to assess for congenital hypothyroidism in newborns?
a) TSH and T4 levels
b) Serum electrolytes
c) Blood glucose
d) Complete blood count
Answer: a) TSH and T4 levels
44. What is a major risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
a) Co-sleeping
b) Breastfeeding
c) Immunizations
d) Pacifier use
Answer: a) Co-sleeping
45. What is the main purpose of using kangaroo care in neonatal care?
a) To promote weight gain
b) To enhance bonding
c) To improve thermoregulation
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
46. What is the most common birth defect detected in the United States?
a) Heart defects
b) Cleft lip and palate
c) Neural tube defects
d) Down syndrome
Answer: a) Heart defects
47. What is the typical duration of exclusive breastfeeding recommended for newborns?
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Answer: c) 6 months
48. What is the most effective method for preventing early-onset sepsis in neonates?
a) Prophylactic antibiotics
b) Hand hygiene and infection control
c) Routine blood cultures
d) Delayed cord clamping
Answer: b) Hand hygiene and infection control
49. Which of the following is a sign of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
a) Absent breath sounds on one side
b) Excessive drooling
c) Normal respiratory effort
d) Elevated temperature
Answer: a) Absent breath sounds on one side
50. What is the purpose of administering vitamin K to newborns?
a) To prevent jaundice
b) To promote healthy growth
c) To prevent hemorrhagic disease
d) To enhance immune function
Answer: c) To prevent hemorrhagic disease
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