Ultrasound MCQs

  1. What is the primary principle behind ultrasound imaging?
    • A) Reflection of sound waves
    • B) Absorption of X-rays
    • C) Transmission of light
    • D) Magnetic resonance
  2. Which frequency range is typically used for diagnostic ultrasound?
    • A) 1-2 kHz
    • B) 2-18 MHz
    • C) 20-50 kHz
    • D) 30-100 MHz
  3. What is the main advantage of using high-frequency ultrasound?
    • A) Greater penetration
    • B) Better resolution
    • C) Decreased cost
    • D) Faster imaging
  4. What is the role of a transducer in ultrasound?
    • A) To emit and receive sound waves
    • B) To generate X-rays
    • C) To amplify signals
    • D) To store images
  5. Which of the following is a common use of Doppler ultrasound?
    • A) Assessing blood flow
    • B) Evaluating bone structure
    • C) Imaging soft tissues
    • D) Visualizing organs
  6. In ultrasound imaging, what does the term “anechoic” refer to?
    • A) Fluid-filled structures appearing dark
    • B) Solid masses appearing bright
    • C) High-density tissues
    • D) Echoes with high frequency
  7. Which of the following ultrasound modes displays a two-dimensional image?
    • A) M-mode
    • B) B-mode
    • C) Doppler mode
    • D) 3D-mode
  8. What is the primary purpose of using contrast agents in ultrasound?
    • A) To reduce exposure time
    • B) To enhance the visualization of structures
    • C) To increase patient comfort
    • D) To provide sedation
  9. What is the typical depth range for abdominal ultrasound imaging?
    • A) 1-3 cm
    • B) 3-15 cm
    • C) 15-30 cm
    • D) 30-50 cm
  10. What is the significance of the “shadowing” artifact in ultrasound?
    • A) Indicates the presence of dense structures
    • B) Signifies fluid accumulation
    • C) Suggests a cyst
    • D) Represents a normal finding
  11. Which ultrasound technique is used to evaluate fetal heart rate?
    • A) B-mode
    • B) Doppler ultrasound
    • C) M-mode
    • D) 3D ultrasound
  12. What is the main disadvantage of using ultrasound for deep tissue imaging?
    • A) Limited penetration depth
    • B) Lack of mobility
    • C) High cost
    • D) Inability to visualize fluid
  13. Which of the following structures is best visualized using ultrasound?
    • A) Bone
    • B) Soft tissues
    • C) Air-filled structures
    • D) High-density organs
  14. What does the term “echogenicity” refer to in ultrasound?
    • A) The speed of sound
    • B) The ability of tissues to reflect ultrasound waves
    • C) The frequency of sound waves
    • D) The depth of penetration
  15. What is the main application of ultrasound in obstetrics?
    • A) Fetal monitoring
    • B) Breast imaging
    • C) Vascular assessment
    • D) Gallbladder examination
  16. Which type of transducer is commonly used for cardiac ultrasound?
    • A) Convex transducer
    • B) Linear transducer
    • C) Phased array transducer
    • D) Endocavitary transducer
  17. What is the advantage of 3D ultrasound imaging?
    • A) Provides volumetric information
    • B) Faster imaging
    • C) Lower cost
    • D) Higher frequency
  18. Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed using ultrasound?
    • A) Pneumonia
    • B) Appendicitis
    • C) Fractures
    • D) Osteoporosis
  19. What does “M-mode” ultrasound primarily assess?
    • A) Motion of structures
    • B) Tissue density
    • C) Blood flow
    • D) 3D images
  20. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ultrasound imaging?
    • A) Non-invasive
    • B) High radiation exposure
    • C) Real-time imaging
    • D) Portability
  21. What is the purpose of using a coupling gel in ultrasound?
    • A) To provide lubrication
    • B) To eliminate air between the transducer and skin
    • C) To enhance sound waves
    • D) To cool the transducer
  22. Which of the following artifacts can occur with improper ultrasound technique?
    • A) Reverberation artifact
    • B) Shadowing artifact
    • C) Enhancement artifact
    • D) All of the above
  23. What is a common use of ultrasound in emergency medicine?
    • A) Rapid assessment of trauma
    • B) Routine check-ups
    • C) Chronic disease monitoring
    • D) Elective surgeries
  24. In which area is ultrasound frequently used to guide interventions?
    • A) Cardiology
    • B) Biopsy procedures
    • C) Radiology
    • D) Neurology
  25. What does the term “doppler shift” refer to in ultrasound?
    • A) Change in frequency due to motion
    • B) Variation in depth
    • C) Absorption of sound waves
    • D) Reflection of sound
  26. What kind of structures produce strong echoes on ultrasound?
    • A) Anechoic
    • B) Hyperechoic
    • C) Isoechoic
    • D) Hypoechoic
  27. Which of the following is a contraindication for using ultrasound?
    • A) Pregnant patients
    • B) Patients with pacemakers
    • C) Pediatric patients
    • D) Elderly patients
  28. What is the role of ultrasound in vascular imaging?
    • A) Assessing blood vessel structure and flow
    • B) Imaging soft tissue
    • C) Evaluating bones
    • D) Detecting tumors
  29. Which ultrasound technique is often used to visualize the thyroid gland?
    • A) B-mode
    • B) M-mode
    • C) Doppler mode
    • D) 3D-mode
  30. What is the main limitation of ultrasound compared to other imaging modalities?
    • A) Operator dependence
    • B) Cost
    • C) Radiation exposure
    • D) Imaging time

 

  1. Abdominal radiology MCQs
  2. Adverse reactions to contrast MCQs
  3. Anatomy and Radiology MCQs
  4. Angiography MCQs
  5. Biopsies MCQs
  6. Catheter insertions MCQs
  7. Cellular effects of radiation MCQs
  8. Contrast Agents MCQs
  9. CT scans MCQs
  10. Dose limits and regulations MCQs
  11. Emergency Radiology MCQs
  12. Fractures and bone diseases MCQs
  13. Gadolinium-based contrast in MRI MCQs
  14. Imaging for acute conditions (stroke, pulmonary embolism) MCQs
  15. Imaging in trauma cases MCQs
  16. Infectious diseases on imaging MCQs
  17. Interpretation of tumors MCQs
  18. Interventional Radiology MCQs
  19. MRI MCQs
  20. Musculoskeletal radiology MCQs
  21. Neonatal imaging techniques MCQs
  22. Neuroimaging MCQs
  23. Nuclear Medicine MCQs
  24. Pediatric imaging protocols MCQs
  25. Pediatric Radiology MCQs
  26. Pediatric trauma on radiographs MCQs
  27. Personal protective equipment (PPE) MCQs
  28. PET scans MCQs
  29. Principles of SPECT and PET scans MCQs
  30. Radiation carcinogenesis MCQs
  31. Radiation interaction with matter MCQs
  32. Radiation Physics MCQs
  33. Radiation Protection MCQs
  34. Radiation safety principles MCQs
  35. Radiation types and properties MCQs
  36. Radiation-induced tissue damage MCQs
  37. Radiobiology  MCQs
  38. Radiographic image formation MCQs
  39. Radiographic Imaging Techniques MCQs
  40. Radioisotopes in medical imaging MCQs
  41. Radiologic anatomy of the chest MCQs
  42. Radiologic Pathology MCQs
  43. Radiology MCQs
  44. Radiopharmaceuticals MCQs
  45. Rapid diagnosis techniques MCQs
  46. Shielding techniques MCQs
  47. Stent placements MCQs
  48. Types of contrast agents MCQs
  49. Use of iodine-based agents MCQs
  50. Vascular abnormalities MCQs
  51. X-ray MCQs
  52. X-ray production MCQs

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