Abdominal radiology MCQs

  • Which imaging modality is most commonly used for evaluating acute appendicitis?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) MRI
    C) CT scan
    D) X-ray
    Answer: C) CT scan
  • What is the most common finding in a CT scan for diverticulitis?
    A) Bowel perforation
    B) Colonic thickening
    C) Intussusception
    D) Gallstones
    Answer: B) Colonic thickening
  • Which of the following is the imaging modality of choice for evaluating gallstones?
    A) MRI
    B) Ultrasound
    C) X-ray
    D) CT scan
    Answer: B) Ultrasound
  • In a patient with suspected liver cirrhosis, which imaging modality is most commonly used to assess liver morphology?
    A) MRI
    B) CT scan
    C) Ultrasound
    D) PET scan
    Answer: C) Ultrasound
  • What is the hallmark feature of hepatocellular carcinoma on contrast-enhanced CT?
    A) Hypovascularity
    B) Delayed enhancement
    C) Early arterial phase enhancement
    D) No enhancement
    Answer: C) Early arterial phase enhancement
  • Which imaging modality is best for identifying pancreatic masses?
    A) MRI
    B) Ultrasound
    C) X-ray
    D) CT scan
    Answer: D) CT scan
  • A classic finding of “string of pearls” sign on an abdominal X-ray is associated with which condition?
    A) Crohn’s disease
    B) Small bowel obstruction
    C) Diverticulitis
    D) Appendicitis
    Answer: B) Small bowel obstruction
  • Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting small bowel tumors?
    A) CT enterography
    B) Ultrasound
    C) X-ray
    D) PET scan
    Answer: A) CT enterography
  • In patients with suspected renal colic, what is the imaging modality of choice?
    A) MRI
    B) Non-contrast CT scan
    C) X-ray
    D) Ultrasound
    Answer: B) Non-contrast CT scan
  • The “double bubble” sign on an abdominal X-ray is indicative of which condition?
    A) Duodenal atresia
    B) Intussusception
    C) Volvulus
    D) Appendicitis
    Answer: A) Duodenal atresia
  • Which of the following is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing splenic rupture?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) CT scan
    C) MRI
    D) X-ray
    Answer: B) CT scan
  • What is the classic ultrasound finding in acute cholecystitis?
    A) Pericholecystic fluid
    B) Thickened gallbladder wall
    C) Gallstones
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  • What is the most common cause of pneumoperitoneum on abdominal X-ray?
    A) Bowel obstruction
    B) Perforated viscus
    C) Ascites
    D) Appendicitis
    Answer: B) Perforated viscus
  • In abdominal radiology, the “coffee bean sign” is associated with which condition?
    A) Intussusception
    B) Volvulus
    C) Appendicitis
    D) Diverticulitis
    Answer: B) Volvulus
  • Which imaging modality is most appropriate for diagnosing abdominal aortic aneurysms?
    A) CT angiography
    B) Ultrasound
    C) MRI
    D) X-ray
    Answer: A) CT angiography
  • The “target sign” seen on ultrasound is most commonly associated with which condition?
    A) Intussusception
    B) Diverticulitis
    C) Crohn’s disease
    D) Appendicitis
    Answer: A) Intussusception
  • In abdominal trauma, which imaging modality is most commonly used for rapid assessment?
    A) X-ray
    B) Ultrasound (FAST)
    C) MRI
    D) CT scan
    Answer: B) Ultrasound (FAST)
  • Which of the following is a typical imaging feature of chronic pancreatitis on CT?
    A) Pancreatic calcifications
    B) Fluid collections
    C) Enlarged pancreas
    D) No enhancement
    Answer: A) Pancreatic calcifications
  • What is the primary imaging modality used for diagnosing an abdominal abscess?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) CT scan
    C) MRI
    D) PET scan
    Answer: B) CT scan
  • The “Rigler’s sign” on abdominal X-ray is indicative of which condition?
    A) Ascites
    B) Free intraperitoneal air
    C) Crohn’s disease
    D) Intussusception
    Answer: B) Free intraperitoneal air
  • What is the most common finding in mesenteric ischemia on a contrast-enhanced CT?
    A) Colonic dilation
    B) Thickened bowel wall
    C) Bowel perforation
    D) No enhancement of affected bowel segments
    Answer: D) No enhancement of affected bowel segments
  • The “whirl sign” on CT is most commonly associated with which condition?
    A) Volvulus
    B) Appendicitis
    C) Diverticulitis
    D) Pancreatitis
    Answer: A) Volvulus
  • In liver imaging, which of the following is a characteristic finding of hemangiomas on MRI?
    A) Hyperintense on T1
    B) Hypointense on T2
    C) Hyperintense on T2
    D) No enhancement on contrast
    Answer: C) Hyperintense on T2
  • The “curvilinear air” sign on a plain abdominal radiograph is indicative of what condition?
    A) Appendicitis
    B) Pneumatosis intestinalis
    C) Crohn’s disease
    D) Small bowel obstruction
    Answer: B) Pneumatosis intestinalis
  • Which of the following findings is suggestive of ischemic colitis on CT scan?
    A) Thumbprinting
    B) Pneumoperitoneum
    C) Target sign
    D) Hepatic steatosis
    Answer: A) Thumbprinting
  • In the context of bowel obstruction, what does the “transition point” refer to on a CT scan?
    A) Point of bowel perforation
    B) Area where the bowel obstruction starts
    C) Point of bowel volvulus
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Area where the bowel obstruction starts
  • The “fat stranding” seen on CT is most commonly associated with which abdominal condition?
    A) Appendicitis
    B) Diverticulitis
    C) Pancreatitis
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  • What imaging feature is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease?
    A) Target sign
    B) Skip lesions
    C) Coffee bean sign
    D) Hemangiomas
    Answer: B) Skip lesions
  • The “portal venous gas” seen on abdominal CT suggests which condition?
    A) Pancreatitis
    B) Bowel ischemia
    C) Intussusception
    D) Diverticulitis
    Answer: B) Bowel ischemia
  • Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging modality to evaluate fatty liver disease?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) CT scan
    C) MRI
    D) X-ray
    Answer: A) Ultrasound

 

 

  1. Adverse reactions to contrast MCQs
  2. Anatomy and Radiology MCQs
  3. Angiography MCQs
  4. Biopsies MCQs
  5. Catheter insertions MCQs
  6. Cellular effects of radiation MCQs
  7. Contrast Agents MCQs
  8. CT scans MCQs
  9. Dose limits and regulations MCQs
  10. Emergency Radiology MCQs
  11. Fractures and bone diseases MCQs
  12. Gadolinium-based contrast in MRI MCQs
  13. Imaging for acute conditions (stroke, pulmonary embolism) MCQs
  14. Imaging in trauma cases MCQs
  15. Infectious diseases on imaging MCQs
  16. Interpretation of tumors MCQs
  17. Interventional Radiology MCQs
  18. MRI MCQs
  19. Musculoskeletal radiology MCQs
  20. Neonatal imaging techniques MCQs
  21. Neuroimaging MCQs
  22. Nuclear Medicine MCQs
  23. Pediatric imaging protocols MCQs
  24. Pediatric Radiology MCQs
  25. Pediatric trauma on radiographs MCQs
  26. Personal protective equipment (PPE) MCQs
  27. PET scans MCQs
  28. Principles of SPECT and PET scans MCQs
  29. Radiation carcinogenesis MCQs
  30. Radiation interaction with matter MCQs
  31. Radiation Physics MCQs
  32. Radiation Protection MCQs
  33. Radiation safety principles MCQs
  34. Radiation types and properties MCQs
  35. Radiation-induced tissue damage MCQs
  36. Radiobiology  MCQs
  37. Radiographic image formation MCQs
  38. Radiographic Imaging Techniques MCQs
  39. Radioisotopes in medical imaging MCQs
  40. Radiologic anatomy of the chest MCQs
  41. Radiologic Pathology MCQs
  42. Radiology MCQs
  43. Radiopharmaceuticals MCQs
  44. Rapid diagnosis techniques MCQs
  45. Shielding techniques MCQs
  46. Stent placements MCQs
  47. Types of contrast agents MCQs
  48. Ultrasound MCQs
  49. Use of iodine-based agents MCQs
  50. Vascular abnormalities MCQs
  51. X-ray MCQs
  52. X-ray production MCQs

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