Musculoskeletal radiology MCQs

  • What is the primary imaging modality used to evaluate bone fractures?
    • A) MRI
    • B) X-ray
    • C) Ultrasound
    • D) CT scan
  • Which of the following conditions is best diagnosed with MRI?
    • A) Osteoporosis
    • B) Soft tissue injuries
    • C) Osteoarthritis
    • D) Bone density loss
  • What is the significance of a “sunburst” appearance on X-ray?
    • A) Osteomyelitis
    • B) Osteosarcoma
    • C) Ewing’s sarcoma
    • D) Chondrosarcoma
  • What type of joint is primarily assessed for osteoarthritis?
    • A) Hinge joint
    • B) Synovial joint
    • C) Fibrous joint
    • D) Cartilaginous joint
  • What imaging feature is indicative of rheumatoid arthritis?
    • A) Subperiosteal bone formation
    • B) Joint effusion and soft tissue swelling
    • C) Bone sclerosis
    • D) Fractures
  • Which type of fracture is characterized by a break that does not penetrate the skin?
    • A) Open fracture
    • B) Closed fracture
    • C) Greenstick fracture
    • D) Comminuted fracture
  • What is the primary advantage of MRI in musculoskeletal imaging?
    • A) Cost-effectiveness
    • B) Detailed soft tissue evaluation
    • C) Speed of imaging
    • D) Use of ionizing radiation
  • Which imaging modality is best for evaluating the spinal canal?
    • A) X-ray
    • B) MRI
    • C) Ultrasound
    • D) CT scan
  • What does the term “osteophyte” refer to in radiology?
    • A) Bone marrow edema
    • B) Bone spur formation
    • C) Joint effusion
    • D) Soft tissue mass
  • In a musculoskeletal X-ray, what does a “lateral view” typically show?
    • A) Frontal plane details
    • B) Side view of the anatomy
    • C) Angled view
    • D) Top-down view
  • What is a common appearance of a stress fracture on X-ray?
    • A) Localized bone marrow edema
    • B) Fracture line
    • C) Joint effusion
    • D) Osteopenia
  • Which imaging technique is best for assessing cartilage degeneration?
    • A) X-ray
    • B) MRI
    • C) Ultrasound
    • D) CT scan
  • What does a “positive draw sign” indicate in musculoskeletal exams?
    • A) Fracture
    • B) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
    • C) Meniscus tear
    • D) Osteoarthritis
  • Which of the following conditions is characterized by a “target sign” on MRI?
    • A) Osteomyelitis
    • B) Synovial sarcoma
    • C) Rheumatoid arthritis
    • D) Gout
  • What is the most common location for osteosarcoma to occur?
    • A) Spine
    • B) Distal femur
    • C) Proximal humerus
    • D) Pelvis
  • Which imaging study is commonly used to evaluate the menisci of the knee?
    • A) X-ray
    • B) MRI
    • C) CT scan
    • D) Ultrasound
  • What is the typical radiographic appearance of gout?
    • A) Osteophytes
    • B) Erosive changes and tophi
    • C) Osteosclerosis
    • D) Bone cysts
  • Which condition presents with “fuzzy” bone margins on imaging?
    • A) Osteosarcoma
    • B) Osteomyelitis
    • C) Osteoarthritis
    • D) Chondrosarcoma
  • What is a common finding in an MRI of a torn rotator cuff?
    • A) Fluid in the subacromial space
    • B) Osteophyte formation
    • C) Joint effusion
    • D) Bursitis
  • Which of the following is a feature of ankylosing spondylitis on X-ray?
    • A) Vertebral body collapse
    • B) Bamboo spine appearance
    • C) Lateral spinal curvature
    • D) Bone cysts
  • What does a “double-density sign” indicate on an X-ray?
    • A) Osteoporosis
    • B) Paget’s disease
    • C) Osteomyelitis
    • D) Tumor presence
  • What imaging finding is typical in a benign bone tumor like an osteochondroma?
    • A) Cortex intact with bone growth
    • B) Soft tissue invasion
    • C) Extensive bone destruction
    • D) Joint effusion
  • Which condition is associated with a “crescent sign” on imaging?
    • A) Rheumatoid arthritis
    • B) Avascular necrosis
    • C) Osteoarthritis
    • D) Osteomyelitis
  • What is the typical imaging appearance of fibrous dysplasia?
    • A) Well-defined lesions
    • B) Ground-glass opacity
    • C) Bone sclerosis
    • D) Cortical bone thinning
  • Which MRI sequence is most effective for assessing edema in the bone marrow?
    • A) T1-weighted
    • B) T2-weighted
    • C) Gradient echo
    • D) Proton density
  • What is the most common type of bone metastasis?
    • A) Osteoblastic
    • B) Osteolytic
    • C) Mixed
    • D) None of the above
  • Which imaging modality is best for assessing fractures in children?
    • A) CT scan
    • B) X-ray
    • C) MRI
    • D) Ultrasound
  • What does a “soap bubble” appearance on X-ray typically indicate?
    • A) Osteosarcoma
    • B) Aneurysmal bone cyst
    • C) Chondrosarcoma
    • D) Fibrous dysplasia
  • What is the primary use of ultrasound in musculoskeletal imaging?
    • A) Assessment of soft tissue injuries
    • B) Bone density measurement
    • C) Tumor evaluation
    • D) Fracture assessment
  • Which imaging feature is typical of Ewing’s sarcoma?
    • A) Osteolytic lesions
    • B) Onion skin appearance
    • C) Osteoblastic lesions
    • D) Cortical bone thickening

 

 

  1. Abdominal radiology MCQs
  2. Adverse reactions to contrast MCQs
  3. Anatomy and Radiology MCQs
  4. Angiography MCQs
  5. Biopsies MCQs
  6. Catheter insertions MCQs
  7. Cellular effects of radiation MCQs
  8. Contrast Agents MCQs
  9. CT scans MCQs
  10. Dose limits and regulations MCQs
  11. Emergency Radiology MCQs
  12. Fractures and bone diseases MCQs
  13. Gadolinium-based contrast in MRI MCQs
  14. Imaging for acute conditions (stroke, pulmonary embolism) MCQs
  15. Imaging in trauma cases MCQs
  16. Infectious diseases on imaging MCQs
  17. Interpretation of tumors MCQs
  18. Interventional Radiology MCQs
  19. MRI MCQs
  20. Neonatal imaging techniques MCQs
  21. Neuroimaging MCQs
  22. Nuclear Medicine MCQs
  23. Pediatric imaging protocols MCQs
  24. Pediatric Radiology MCQs
  25. Pediatric trauma on radiographs MCQs
  26. Personal protective equipment (PPE) MCQs
  27. PET scans MCQs
  28. Principles of SPECT and PET scans MCQs
  29. Radiation carcinogenesis MCQs
  30. Radiation interaction with matter MCQs
  31. Radiation Physics MCQs
  32. Radiation Protection MCQs
  33. Radiation safety principles MCQs
  34. Radiation types and properties MCQs
  35. Radiation-induced tissue damage MCQs
  36. Radiobiology  MCQs
  37. Radiographic image formation MCQs
  38. Radiographic Imaging Techniques MCQs
  39. Radioisotopes in medical imaging MCQs
  40. Radiologic anatomy of the chest MCQs
  41. Radiologic Pathology MCQs
  42. Radiology MCQs
  43. Radiopharmaceuticals MCQs
  44. Rapid diagnosis techniques MCQs
  45. Shielding techniques MCQs
  46. Stent placements MCQs
  47. Types of contrast agents MCQs
  48. Ultrasound MCQs
  49. Use of iodine-based agents MCQs
  50. Vascular abnormalities MCQs
  51. X-ray MCQs
  52. X-ray production MCQs

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