1. What is the primary purpose of prenatal vitamins during pregnancy?
a) To improve digestion
b) To prevent maternal anemia
c) To support fetal development
d) To reduce nausea
Answer: c) To support fetal development
2. Which of the following is a common sign of preeclampsia?
a) Severe headaches
b) Increased appetite
c) Excessive weight loss
d) Decreased urination
Answer: a) Severe headaches
3. At what stage of pregnancy does quickening typically occur?
a) First trimester
b) Early second trimester
c) Late second trimester
d) Third trimester
Answer: b) Early second trimester
4. What is the recommended position for a woman in labor to help with fetal descent?
a) Supine
b) Lithotomy
c) Left lateral
d) Trendelenburg
Answer: c) Left lateral
5. What is the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy in the early stages?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Oxytocin
d) HCG
Answer: b) Progesterone
6. Which test is commonly used to assess fetal well-being during labor?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Non-stress test (NST)
c) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
d) Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Answer: b) Non-stress test (NST)
7. What is the typical gestational age range for a preterm birth?
a) Less than 28 weeks
b) 28 to 32 weeks
c) 32 to 37 weeks
d) 37 to 42 weeks
Answer: c) 32 to 37 weeks
8. What is the most common type of cesarean section incision?
a) Vertical incision
b) Horizontal incision
c) Classical incision
d) Pfannenstiel incision
Answer: d) Pfannenstiel incision
9. What is the primary risk factor for gestational diabetes?
a) Maternal age
b) Smoking
c) Obesity
d) Family history of hypertension
Answer: c) Obesity
10. What is the recommended frequency of prenatal visits for a low-risk pregnancy?
a) Once a month
b) Every 2 weeks
c) Every 4 weeks
d) Every week
Answer: c) Every 4 weeks
11. What is the primary function of the amniotic fluid?
a) To provide nutrients to the fetus
b) To protect the fetus from trauma
c) To facilitate fetal movement
d) To support fetal lung development
Answer: b) To protect the fetus from trauma
12. What is the name of the procedure used to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Chorionic villus sampling
c) Non-stress test
d) Ultrasound
Answer: a) Amniocentesis
13. What is a common symptom of postpartum depression?
a) Excessive weight gain
b) Severe mood swings
c) Insomnia
d) Increased energy
Answer: b) Severe mood swings
14. What is the most common cause of bleeding during the first trimester of pregnancy?
a) Ectopic pregnancy
b) Placenta previa
c) Miscarriage
d) Placental abruption
Answer: c) Miscarriage
15. What is the ideal position for a woman during the second stage of labor?
a) Supine
b) Left lateral
c) Lithotomy
d) Hands and knees
Answer: c) Lithotomy
16. At what gestational age does the fetal heart rate typically begin to be detectable via Doppler ultrasound?
a) 6 weeks
b) 10 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Answer: b) 10 weeks
17. What is the purpose of the Apgar score?
a) To assess the risk of preterm labor
b) To evaluate the newborn’s condition immediately after birth
c) To monitor fetal growth
d) To diagnose postpartum depression
Answer: b) To evaluate the newborn’s condition immediately after birth
18. What is the most common complication of a prolonged labor?
a) Fetal distress
b) Maternal dehydration
c) Postpartum hemorrhage
d) Premature rupture of membranes
Answer: a) Fetal distress
19. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during labor?
a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Oxytocin
d) HCG
Answer: c) Oxytocin
20. What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal BMI during pregnancy?
a) 15-20 pounds
b) 20-25 pounds
c) 25-35 pounds
d) 30-40 pounds
Answer: c) 25-35 pounds
21. What is the term used for the fetal presentation in which the baby’s head is facing up?
a) Vertex presentation
b) Breech presentation
c) Transverse lie
d) Occipito-posterior position
Answer: d) Occipito-posterior position
22. What is the primary concern for a woman with placenta previa?
a) Excessive maternal bleeding
b) Preterm labor
c) Increased risk of infection
d) Fetal distress
Answer: a) Excessive maternal bleeding
23. Which of the following is a common symptom of preterm labor?
a) Severe abdominal cramping
b) Blurred vision
c) Persistent nausea
d) Frequent urination
Answer: a) Severe abdominal cramping
24. What is the name of the procedure used to assess the position and presentation of the fetus before delivery?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Ultrasound
c) Non-stress test
d) Biophysical profile
Answer: b) Ultrasound
25. What is the recommended method for managing severe postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Administration of IV fluids
b) Administration of uterotonics
c) Immediate surgical intervention
d) Application of pressure bandages
Answer: b) Administration of uterotonics
26. What is the most common form of contraception used in the postpartum period?
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Intrauterine device (IUD)
c) Condoms
d) Hormonal patches
Answer: b) Intrauterine device (IUD)
27. At what age is it recommended to begin cervical cancer screening for women with average risk?
a) 18 years
b) 21 years
c) 30 years
d) 40 years
Answer: b) 21 years
28. What is the primary cause of oligohydramnios?
a) Maternal diabetes
b) Fetal kidney abnormalities
c) Excessive maternal weight gain
d) Multiple gestations
Answer: b) Fetal kidney abnormalities
29. What is the primary goal of managing hyperemesis gravidarum?
a) Reducing maternal weight gain
b) Increasing fetal growth
c) Controlling severe nausea and vomiting
d) Preventing preterm labor
Answer: c) Controlling severe nausea and vomiting
30. What is the primary function of the placenta?
a) To provide oxygen to the mother
b) To nourish the fetus
c) To facilitate maternal digestion
d) To filter fetal blood
Answer: b) To nourish the fetus
31. Which of the following is a common sign of uterine rupture?
a) Severe back pain
b) Excessive bleeding
c) High fever
d) Decreased fetal movement
Answer: b) Excessive bleeding
32. What is the purpose of the Leopold’s maneuvers?
a) To assess fetal heart rate
b) To determine fetal presentation and position
c) To measure maternal blood pressure
d) To assess uterine contractions
Answer: b) To determine fetal presentation and position
33. What is the recommended management for a patient with an ectopic pregnancy?
a) Surgical intervention
b) Medical management with methotrexate
c) Observation and bed rest
d) Immediate labor induction
Answer: b) Medical management with methotrexate
34. What is the most common cause of maternal fever during labor?
a) Chorioamnionitis
b) UTI
c) Postpartum hemorrhage
d) Preeclampsia
Answer: a) Chorioamnionitis
35. What is the primary treatment for a newborn diagnosed with jaundice?
a) Phototherapy
b) Exchange transfusion
c) Intravenous fluids
d) Antibiotics
Answer: a) Phototherapy
36. At what gestational age does fetal viability typically occur?
a) 20 weeks
b) 24 weeks
c) 28 weeks
d) 32 weeks
Answer: b) 24 weeks
37. What is the most appropriate method for diagnosing endometriosis?
a) Pelvic ultrasound
b) MRI
c) Laparoscopy
d) Hysteroscopy
Answer: c) Laparoscopy
38. What is the typical duration of the postpartum period?
a) 6 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Answer: a) 6 weeks
39. What is the most common type of female infertility?
a) Anovulation
b) Tubal factor
c) Uterine abnormalities
d) Male factor
Answer: a) Anovulation
40. What is the primary risk associated with a VBAC (Vaginal Birth After Cesarean)?
a) Maternal infection
b) Uterine rupture
c) Preterm labor
d) Fetal distress
Answer: b) Uterine rupture
More MCQs on Nursing
1. Fundamental Nursing
- Introduction to Nursing MCQs
- Nursing Ethics and Professionalism MCQs
- Patient Care and Safety MCQs Nursing
2. Anatomy and Physiology
3. Pharmacology MCQs Nursing
- Basic Pharmacology MCQs Nursing
- Medication Administration MCQs Nursing
- Drug Interactions and Side Effects MCQs Nursing
4. Microbiology and Immunology MCQs Nursing
- Basics of Microbiology MCQs Nursing
- Infection Control MCQs Nursing
- Immunology and Disease Prevention MCQs Nursing
5. Medical-Surgical Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Care of Adult Patients MCQs Nursing
- Surgical Procedures and Postoperative Care MCQs Nursing
- Management of Chronic Conditions MCQs Nursing
6. Pediatric Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Child Health Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Growth and Development MCQs Nursing
- Pediatric Illnesses and Treatment MCQs Nursing
7. Maternal and Child Health Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Obstetrics and Gynecology MCQs Nursing
- Neonatal Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Reproductive Health MCQs Nursing
8. Mental Health Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Psychiatric Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Mental Health Disorders MCQs Nursing
- Counseling and Psychotherapy MCQs Nursing
9. Community Health Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Public Health Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Community-Based Care MCQs Nursing
- Health Promotion and Disease Prevention MCQs Nursing
10. Nutrition and Dietetics MCQs Nursing
- Basic Nutrition MCQs Nursing
- Diet Therapy MCQs Nursing
- Nutritional Needs Across the Lifespan MCQs Nursing
11. Health Assessment MCQs Nursing
- Physical Examination Techniques MCQs Nursing
- Health History Taking MCQs Nursing
- Diagnostic Testing MCQs Nursing
12. Nursing Research MCQs Nursing
- Introduction to Research Methods MCQs Nursing
- Evidence-Based Practice MCQs Nursing
- Critical Appraisal of Research MCQs Nursing
13. Nursing Leadership and Management MCQs Nursing
- Healthcare Systems and Policy MCQs Nursing
- Nursing Leadership and Teamwork MCQs Nursing
- Quality Improvement in Healthcare MCQs Nursing
14. Emergency and Critical Care Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Trauma Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Intensive Care Nursing MCQs Nursing
- Emergency Response and Triage MCQs Nursing